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Comprehensive Exam - MC

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Which scientific skill are you using when you see that the sky is cloudy?
a.
making an observation
b.
making an inference
c.
posing a question
d.
drawing a conclusion
 

 2. 

A controlled experiment is designed to test
a.
a conclusion.
b.
a hypothesis.
c.
data.
d.
a measurement.
 

 3. 

The factor that a scientist changes during a controlled experiment is called the
a.
dependent variable.
b.
responding variable.
c.
initial variable.
d.
manipulated variable.
 

 4. 

A chart showing the amount of rain each month in a region is an example of a scientist's
a.
variables.
b.
inferences.
c.
data.
d.
conclusions.
 

 5. 

What must be true of a conclusion to a controlled experiment?
a.
A conclusion must show that the data support the hypothesis.
b.
A conclusion must show that the hypothesis was incorrect.
c.
A conclusion must be reached for every experiment.
d.
A conclusion must relate the data to the hypothesis.
 

 6. 

A scientific explanation that can be tested by observation or experiment is a(n)
a.
inference.
b.
simulation.
c.
variable.
d.
hypothesis.
 

 7. 

A well-tested scientific concept that explains a wide range of observations is called a
a.
scientific inquiry.
b.
scientific hypothesis.
c.
scientific method.
d.
scientific theory.
 

 8. 

Anything that has mass and takes up space is
a.
a chemical change.
b.
energy.
c.
matter.
d.
a mixture.
 

 9. 

Which of the following is an example of a physical property?
a.
hardness
b.
ability to rust
c.
reacting with water
d.
flammability
 

 10. 

Which type of matter consists of two or more substances that are all chemically combined?
a.
an element
b.
a compound
c.
a mixture
d.
an atom
 

 11. 

Substances that CANNOT be broken down chemically into other substances are
a.
elements.
b.
compounds.
c.
mixtures.
d.
liquids.
 

 12. 

One example of a physical change is
a.
burning paper.
b.
baking cookies.
c.
the rusting of iron.
d.
mixing a milkshake.
 

 13. 

One example of a chemical change is
a.
cutting up paper.
b.
burning gasoline in an engine.
c.
boiling water.
d.
crushing a can.
 

 14. 

The type of energy that is related to the motion or position of matter is
a.
electrical energy.
b.
electromagnetic energy.
c.
mechanical energy.
d.
thermal energy.
 

 15. 

The measurement of the force of gravity on an object is the object's
a.
mass.
b.
volume.
c.
weight.
d.
density.
 

 16. 

The measurement of how much matter an object contains is its
a.
volume.
b.
weight.
c.
mass.
d.
density.
 

 17. 

The measurement of the amount of mass contained in a given volume is called
a.
weight.
b.
kilogram.
c.
liter.
d.
density.
 

 18. 

All elements are composed of extremely small particles called
a.
compounds.
b.
mixtures.
c.
atoms.
d.
molecules.
 

 19. 

According to Dalton's theory of atoms, all atoms of any element
a.
are exactly alike.
b.
can be broken into smaller pieces.
c.
are different.
d.
have a different mass.
 

 20. 

Some atoms can bond together to form a single unit called a(n)
a.
element.
b.
compound.
c.
molecule.
d.
mixture.
 

 21. 

In a chemical reaction,
a.
there is no change in energy.
b.
energy is always absorbed.
c.
energy is always released.
d.
energy is either absorbed or released.
 

 22. 

A shorter, easier way to show chemical reactions, using symbols instead of words, is called a
a.
chemical equation.
b.
chemical formula.
c.
symbol.
d.
subscript.
 

 23. 

Which of the following shows a correct structure for a chemical equation?
a.
Product + Product ® Reactant
b.
Product + Reactant ® Product + Reactant
c.
Product + Product ¬ Reactant + Reactant
d.
Reactant + Reactant ® Product
 

 24. 

Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation?
a.
H2O2 ® H2O + O2
b.
2 Fe2O3 + 3 C ® 4 Fe + 3 CO2
c.
SO2 + O2 + 2 H2O ® 4 H2SO4
d.
2 Mg + HCl ® MgCl2 + H2
 

 25. 

According to the principle of conservation of mass, in a chemical equation the number of
a.
coefficients for the products equals the number of coefficients for the reactants.
b.
reactants equals the number of products.
c.
atoms in the products equals the number of atoms in the reactants.
d.
subscripts for the products equals the number of subscripts for the reactants.
 

 26. 

The ability to do work is called
a.
velocity.
b.
energy.
c.
force.
d.
friction.
 

 27. 

Energy is measured in
a.
joules.
b.
pounds.
c.
meters.
d.
newtons.
 

 28. 

The energy associated with motion is called
a.
kinetic energy.
b.
elastic potential energy.
c.
gravitational potential energy.
d.
nuclear energy.
 

 29. 

Unlike kinetic energy, potential energy is
a.
energy of motion.
b.
stored.
c.
conserved.
d.
not measurable.
 

 30. 

Potential energy that depends on height is called
a.
kinetic energy.
b.
gravitational potential energy.
c.
elastic potential energy.
d.
thermal energy.
 

 31. 

Energy conversion means
a.
that energy can be created but not destroyed.
b.
that energy can be destroyed but not created.
c.
not wasting energy.
d.
that most forms of energy can be converted into another form.
 

 32. 

The law of conservation of energy states that when one form of energy is converted into another,
a.
energy is destroyed.
b.
energy is created.
c.
energy is neither created nor destroyed.
d.
some amount of energy cannot be accounted for.
 

 33. 

The type of energy stored by fossil fuels such as coal is
a.
kinetic energy.
b.
mechanical energy.
c.
potential chemical energy.
d.
electromagnetic energy.
 

 34. 

Fossil fuels contain energy that originally came from
a.
earthquakes.
b.
waterfalls.
c.
the sun.
d.
lightning.
 

 35. 

The most plentiful fossil fuel in the United States is
a.
coal.
b.
oil.
c.
natural gas.
d.
wood.
 

 36. 

Which fossil fuel produces the lowest levels of most air pollutants?
a.
coal
b.
oil
c.
petroleum
d.
natural gas
 

 37. 

Fossil fuels are considered nonrenewable resources because they
a.
burn so quickly.
b.
are in such high demand.
c.
take hundreds of millions of years to form.
d.
pollute the air.
 

 38. 

Which of the following is an advantage of solar energy?
a.
It will not run out for billions of years.
b.
It is not available at night.
c.
No back-up energy sources are needed.
d.
It must be collected from a huge area.
 

 39. 

What is the most widely used source of renewable energy in the world today?
a.
hydroelectric power
b.
solar power
c.
biomass fuels
d.
nuclear power
 

 40. 

What fuel forms only water as a by-product when it is burned?
a.
petroleum
b.
hydrogen
c.
natural gas
d.
uranium
 

 41. 

The intense heat beneath Earth's surface can be a source of
a.
hydrogen power.
b.
nuclear fusion.
c.
geothermal energy.
d.
solar energy.
 

 42. 

The splitting of an atom's nucleus into two smaller nuclei is called
a.
nuclear fusion.
b.
nuclear fission.
c.
a chain reaction.
d.
a meltdown.
 

 43. 

The combining of two atomic nuclei to produce one larger nucleus is called
a.
hydrogen power.
b.
nuclear fission.
c.
nuclear fusion.
d.
a meltdown.
 

 44. 

A change to the environment that has a negative effect on living things is called
a.
a renewable resource.
b.
a nonrenewable resource.
c.
population growth.
d.
pollution.
 

 45. 

A water molecule is made up of
a.
two hydrogen atoms bonded to an oxygen atom.
b.
two hydrogen atoms bonded together.
c.
two oxygen atoms bonded to a hydrogen atom.
d.
two oxygen atoms bonded together.
 

 46. 

Tightness across the surface of water that is caused by polar molecules pulling on each other is called
a.
surface tension.
b.
capillary action.
c.
condensation.
d.
polar action.
 

 47. 

Approximately what percentage of Earth's water is fresh water?
a.
97 percent
b.
71 percent
c.
30 percent
d.
3 percent
 

 48. 

Most of Earth's fresh water is found in
a.
huge masses of ice near the North and South Poles.
b.
cracks and spaces in underground soil and rock.
c.
the oceans.
d.
rivers and lakes.
 

 49. 

The total amount of water on Earth
a.
is increasing.
b.
is fairly constant.
c.
is decreasing.
d.
depends on the weather.
 

 50. 

The land area that supplies water to a river system is called a
a.
watershed.
b.
tributary.
c.
divide.
d.
stream.
 

 51. 

The natural deposits that help keep rivers from flooding are called
a.
levees.
b.
divides.
c.
tributaries
d.
watersheds.
 

 52. 

Materials that allow water to easily pass through them are
a.
permeable.
b.
impermeable.
c.
saturated.
d.
unsaturated.
 

 53. 

New water that enters an aquifer from the surface is called
a.
recharge.
b.
a spring.
c.
an artesian well.
d.
a geyser.
 

 54. 

Pure water is neutral, meaning it is neither an acid nor a base. Pure water has a pH of
a.
0.
b.
14.
c.
7.
d.
10.
 

 55. 

Many homes that are not connected to public sanitary sewers might dispose of sewage using a(n)
a.
aquifer.
b.
septic system.
c.
reservoir.
d.
well.
 

 56. 

Water erosion begins when runoff from rainfall flows in a thin layer over the land in a kind of erosion called
a.
mass erosion.
b.
sheet erosion.
c.
creep.
d.
gullying.
 

 57. 

A stream or river that runs into another stream or river is called a
a.
tributary.
b.
meander.
c.
turbulent stream.
d.
gully.
 

 58. 

A river flowing across a wide flood plain begins to form looplike bends called
a.
rills.
b.
meanders.
c.
outside curves.
d.
deltas.
 

 59. 

What is the thick, brownish haze formed when certain gases react in sunlight?
a.
photochemical smog
b.
acid rain
c.
carbon monoxide
d.
radon
 

 60. 

The National Weather Service measures air pressure in units called
a.
aneroids.
b.
barometers.
c.
millibars.
d.
pressure bars.
 

 61. 

Instruments used to measure air pressure are called
a.
thermometers.
b.
hygrometers.
c.
hydrometers.
d.
barometers.
 

 62. 

An aneroid barometer is different from a mercury barometer in that it
a.
measures temperature.
b.
uses alcohol instead of mercury.
c.
does not contain a liquid.
d.
provides readings that increase as air pressure increases.
 

 63. 

The main layers of the atmosphere are classified according to changes in
a.
altitude.
b.
density.
c.
pressure.
d.
temperature.
 

 64. 

Radio waves are reflected back to Earth in the
a.
exosphere.
b.
ionosphere.
c.
thermosphere.
d.
mesosphere.
 

 65. 

Heat transfer between two substances that are in contact is called
a.
conduction.
b.
thermal energy.
c.
convection.
d.
radiation.
 

 66. 

Heat from a campfire reaches you by
a.
conduction.
b.
light emission.
c.
convection.
d.
radiation.
 

 67. 

Most of the heating of the troposphere comes from
a.
conduction.
b.
induction.
c.
convection.
d.
radiation.
 

 68. 

Wind speed is measured by a(an)
a.
barometer.
b.
anemometer.
c.
thermometer.
d.
hygrometer.
 

 69. 

Land breezes occur because
a.
land cools off faster than water.
b.
land cools off more slowly than water.
c.
land heats up faster than water.
d.
land heats up more slowly than water.
 

 70. 

Earth's rotation makes winds seem to curve. This is called the
a.
convection effect.
b.
global effect.
c.
Coriolis effect.
d.
rotational effect.
 

 71. 

The doldrums are characterized by
a.
high pressure.
b.
cool temperatures.
c.
weak winds.
d.
heavy air.
 

 72. 

The horse latitudes are located
a.
at about 60° north and south latitudes.
b.
at the equator.
c.
at about 30° north and south latitudes.
d.
at the north and south poles.
 

 73. 

Relative humidity can be measured with a
a.
hydrometer.
b.
barometer.
c.
psychrometer.
d.
thermometer.
 

 74. 

Large clouds that often produce thunderstorms are called
a.
stratus clouds.
b.
cumulonimbus clouds.
c.
cirrus clouds.
d.
nimbostratus clouds.
 

 75. 

Very high feathery clouds are called
a.
stratus clouds.
b.
cumulonimbus clouds.
c.
cirrus clouds.
d.
nimbostratus clouds.
 

 76. 

Small lines at the end of the shaft that represents wind direction on a weather map indicate
a.
temperature.
b.
wind speed.
c.
pressure.
d.
humidity.
 

 77. 

On weather maps, a line with half circles indicates
a.
a hurricane.
b.
a cold front.
c.
a warm front.
d.
snow.
 

 78. 

The sun's rays are least direct
a.
near the poles.
b.
near the equator.
c.
at high altitudes.
d.
far from the ocean.
 

 79. 

Near the end of both March and September,
a.
spring begins in both hemispheres.
b.
the sun's rays strike Earth with the same intensity everywhere.
c.
Earth's axis is no longer pointing at the North Star.
d.
neither end of Earth's axis is tilted toward the sun.
 

 80. 

The seasons are caused by
a.
Earth's varying distance from the sun.
b.
Earth's changing rate of rotation.
c.
the tilt of Earth's axis.
d.
shifting climates on Earth's surface.
 

 81. 

Day and night are caused by
a.
the tilt of Earth's axis.
b.
Earth's revolution around the sun.
c.
eclipses.
d.
Earth's rotation on its axis.
 

 82. 

Earth's rotation takes about
a.
365 days.
b.
6 months.
c.
24 hours.
d.
1 month.
 

 83. 

One complete revolution of Earth around the sun takes about
a.
one rotation.
b.
one season.
c.
one year.
d.
one eclipse.
 

 84. 

When the north end of Earth's axis is tilted toward the sun, North America will experience
a.
more indirect rays and shorter days.
b.
more indirect rays and longer days.
c.
more direct rays and shorter days.
d.
more direct rays and longer days.
 

 85. 

Not every place on Earth has two regular tides every day because
a.
the moon's gravitational pull changes.
b.
the shapes of bays, inlets, and the ocean floor can affect the flow of water.
c.
the distance between the moon and Earth changes as the Earth rotates.
d.
the sun and moon pull the water in different directions.
 

 86. 

Most places on Earth experience
a.
one high tide and one low tide about every 25 hours.
b.
two high tides and one low tide about every 25 hours.
c.
one high tide and one low tide about every 12.5 hours.
d.
two high tides and two low tides about every 12.5 hours.
 

 87. 

The model in which Earth is at the center of the system of planets is called the
a.
solar system.
b.
heliocentric system.
c.
geocentric system.
d.
Copernican system.
 

 88. 

Copernicus explained that
a.
the sun is at the center of the system of planets.
b.
the sun and the planets revolve around Earth.
c.
the geocentric system is correct.
d.
there are only six planets.
 

 89. 

The heliocentric system gained support when Galileo observed that
a.
one side of the moon always faces Earth.
b.
most of the smaller planets are closer to the sun.
c.
Venus goes through phases similar to those of Earth's moon.
d.
the orbit of each planet is an ellipse.
 

 90. 

The two factors that combine to keep the planets in orbit are
a.
gravity and orbital speed.
b.
orbital speed and mass.
c.
mass and inertia.
d.
gravity and inertia.
 

 91. 

What do all of the inner planets have in common?
a.
They have the same period of revolution.
b.
They have the same period of rotation.
c.
They have the same diameter.
d.
They are small and have rocky surfaces.
 

 92. 

What do the first four outer planets have in common?
a.
They are much larger than Earth and do not have solid surfaces.
b.
They are about the same size as Earth and do not have solid surfaces.
c.
They are much larger than Earth and are solid.
d.
They are about the same size as Earth and are solid.
 

 93. 

Uranus is different from most other planets because it
a.
is the farthest from the sun.
b.
is mostly nitrogen and helium.
c.
rotates on its side.
d.
has the most moons.
 

 94. 

Pluto is different from the other outer planets because it
a.
is almost entirely made of gases.
b.
is much larger than the others.
c.
has the most moons.
d.
is small and has a solid surface.
 

 95. 

What shape are the orbits of most comets?
a.
long, narrow ellipses
b.
circles
c.
nearly circular ellipses
d.
spherical
 

 96. 

The asteroid belt is located
a.
between Earth and Mars.
b.
between Mars and Jupiter.
c.
between Jupiter and Saturn.
d.
between Saturn and Uranus.
 

 97. 

When a meteoroid enters Earth's atmosphere, it produces a streak of light called a
a.
meteor.
b.
asteroid.
c.
meteorite.
d.
comet.
 

 98. 

Spring tides occur
a.
once a month, during a new moon.
b.
once a month, during a full moon.
c.
twice a month, during a new moon and a full moon.
d.
twice a month, during a first quarter moon and a third quarter moon.
 

 99. 

A tide with the LEAST difference between low and high tide is called a
a.
spring tide.
b.
neap tide.
c.
rip tide.
d.
monthly tide.
 

 100. 

Which of these gases is about 60 times more plentiful in the ocean than it is in the atmosphere?
a.
oxygen
b.
carbon dioxide
c.
carbon monoxide
d.
helium
 



 
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