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HONORS BIOLOGY FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

1. 

Energy is required for a variety of life processes including
a.
growth and reproduction.
b.
movement.
c.
transport of certain materials across cell membranes.
d.
All of the above
 

2. 

Heterotrophs are organisms that can
a.
produce food from inorganic molecules and sunlight.
b.
survive without energy.
c.
consume other organisms for energy.
d.
carry out either photosynthesis or chemosynthesis.
 

3. 

Suspended in the fluid stroma of chloroplasts are
a.
organelles called eukaryotes.
b.
numerous mitochondrial membranes.
c.
small coins that provide energy.
d.
stacks of thylakoids called grana.
 

4. 

electrons : chemical bonds ::
a.
heterotrophs : autotrophs
c.
chemical energy : sun
b.
sunlight : plants
d.
nuclei : atoms
 

5. 

light reactions : thylakoids ::
a.
grana : thylakoids
c.
dark reactions : stroma
b.
grana : ATP
d.
stroma : grana of chloroplast
 

6. 

The sun is considered the ultimate source of energy for life on Earth because
a.
all organisms carry out photosynthesis.
b.
all organisms carry out cellular respiration.
c.
either photosynthetic organisms or organisms that have eaten them provide energy for all other organisms on Earth.
d.
the sun heats the Earth's atmosphere.
 

7. 

When photons of light strike an object, the light may be
a.
reflected.
c.
transmitted.
b.
absorbed.
d.
All of the above
 

8. 

Chlorophyll is green because
a.
it absorbs green wavelengths of light.
b.
it absorbs blue and yellow wavelengths, which make green.
c.
photons of green wavelengths are reflected.
d.
of an optical illusion caused by transmitted light.
 

9. 

What happens when a chlorophyll molecule absorbs a photon of light?
a.
Some of its electrons are raised to a higher energy level.
b.
It disintegrates, giving off huge amounts of heat.
c.
It glows, radiating green light and giving the plant a green appearance.
d.
Red and blue wavelengths are emitted.
 

10. 

Flower petals have a variety of colors other than green because they possess
a.
chlorophyll.
c.
pigments that reflect green.
b.
carotenoids.
d.
chloroplasts.
 

11. 

chloroplast : grana ::
a.
photosystem : pigment molecules
c.
thylakoids : grana
b.
chlorophyll : pigment
d.
chlorophyll : green
 

12. 

When electrons of a chlorophyll molecule are raised to a higher energy level,
a.
they become a photon of light.
b.
they form a glucose bond.
c.
they enter an electron transport chain.
d.
carotenoids are converted to chlorophyll.
 

13. 

The source of oxygen produced during photosynthesis is
a.
carbon dioxide.
c.
the air.
b.
water.
d.
glucose.
 

14. 

As a result of photosynthesis,
a.
our atmosphere is now rich in oxygen gas.
b.
animals can get energy directly from the sun.
c.
plants convert chlorophyll into protein channels.
d.
abundant quantities of carbon dioxide are available to fuel the Calvin cycle.
 

15. 

During the third stage of photosynthesis, carbon-containing molecules are produced from
a.
ADP.
b.
carbon atoms, hydrogen atoms, and oxygen atoms from glucose.
c.
carbon atoms from carbon dioxide in the air and hydrogen atoms from water.
d.
carbon atoms from carbon dioxide in the air and hydrogen atoms from NADPH.
 

16. 

Which of the following enables green plants to convert light energy to chemical energy?
a.
the sodium-potassium pump
c.
sugar channels
b.
coupled channels
d.
the proton pump
 

17. 

Proton pumps found in the thylakoid membranes are directly responsible for
a.
moving hydrogen nuclei out of the grana.
b.
providing the energy to produce ATP molecules.
c.
producing ATP-synthetase.
d.
generating glucose molecules.
 

18. 

At a proton pump of the thylakoid membrane,
a.
electrons return to their original energy levels.
b.
electrons are pushed out of the thylakoid.
c.
energy from electrons is used to make ATP.
d.
the thylakoid bursts, releasing energy.
 

19. 

The dark reactions of photosynthesis
a.
require ATP and NADPH.
b.
can occur in both light and dark conditions.
c.
generate glucose.
d.
All of the above
 

20. 

The energy used in the Calvin cycle for the production of carbohydrate molecules comes from
a.
ATP made during cellular respiration.
b.
the Krebs cycle.
c.
ATP made in the second stage of photosynthesis.
d.
CO2 absorbed during the last stage of photosynthesis.
 

21. 

During photosynthesis, the series of reactions that create the complex carbohydrates needed for energy and growth is called
a.
the Calvin cycle.
c.
the energy flow.
b.
the Krebs cycle.
d.
carbohydrate loading.
 

22. 

All organic molecules contain carbon atoms that ultimately can be traced back in the food chain to
a.
the bodies of heterotrophs.
b.
carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
c.
water absorbed by plants.
d.
the carbon that comes from the sun.
 

23. 

Which of the following cannot be produced from the products of the Calvin cycle?
a.
carbohydrates
b.
lipids
c.
proteins
d.
All of the above can be produced from Calvin cycle products.
 

24. 

C3, C4, and CAM plants differ from each other in
a.
that C3 plants use the Calvin cycle for carbon fixation and C4 and CAM plants use different pathways for carbon fixation.
b.
that C3 plants have their stomata open during the day and C4 and CAM plants have their stomata open at night.
c.
the initial product of carbon fixation.
d.
that C3 plants use CO2 to form organic compounds and C4 and CAM plants use other sources of carbon.
 
 
hgfesg_files/i0260000.jpg
 

25. 

Refer to the illustration above. Graph “A” demonstrates that the rate of photosynthesis
a.
decreases in response to increasing light intensity.
b.
increases indefinitely in response to increasing light intensity.
c.
increases in response to increasing light intensity, but only to a certain point.
d.
is unaffected by changes in light intensity.
 

26. 

When cells break down food molecules, energy
a.
is released all at once.
b.
is released entirely as body heat into the environment.
c.
is temporarily stored in ATP molecules.
d.
causes excitation of electrons in chlorophyll molecules.
 

27. 

ATP
a.
contains five phosphate groups.
b.
is essential for a cell to perform all the tasks necessary for life.
c.
is found only in bacteria.
d.
All of the above
 

28. 

A substance, produced during the process of photosynthesis, that is used for completion of cellular respiration is
a.
water.
c.
NADPH.
b.
ATP.
d.
oxygen.
 

29. 

photosynthesis : light ::
a.
light bulb : glass
c.
automobile : gasoline
b.
trunk : clothing
d.
country : nation
 

30. 

When glycolysis occurs,
a.
a molecule of glucose is split.
b.
two molecules of pyruvate are made.
c.
some ATP is produced.
d.
All of the above
 

31. 

The name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is
a.
respiration.
c.
fermentation.
b.
oxidation.
d.
All of the above
 

32. 

When muscles are exercised extensively in the absence of sufficient oxygen,
a.
a large amount of ATP is formed.
c.
lactic acid is produced.
b.
NADH molecules split.
d.
oxidative respiration ceases.
 

33. 

You have been growing some animal cells in culture. The cells grow well for several weeks, and then don’t seem to grow as well. You conduct some tests and determine that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the poor condition of the cells?
a.
There is too much glucose in the culture fluid.
b.
There is not enough glucose in the culture fluid.
c.
There is too much oxygen in the culture fluid.
d.
There is not enough oxygen in the culture fluid.
 

34. 

If the formation of a standard amount of ATP requires 12 kcal of energy and the complete oxidation of glucose yields 686 kcal of energy, how efficient is glycolysis at extracting energy from glucose?
a.
1.7%
c.
7.0%
b.
3.5%
d.
35%
 

35. 

Cellular respiration takes place in two stages:
a.
glycolysis and fermentation.
b.
Stage 1 and Stage 2 of photosynthesis.
c.
glycolysis, then oxidative respiration.
d.
oxidative respiration, then reductive respiration.
 

36. 

In cellular respiration, a two-carbon molecule combines with a four-carbon molecule to form citric acid as part of
a.
glycolysis.
c.
the Krebs cycle.
b.
carbon fixation.
d.
the electron transport chain.
 

37. 

Acetyl-coenzyme A
a.
is formed from the breakdown of pyruvate.
b.
enters the Krebs cycle.
c.
can be used in fat synthesis.
d.
All of the above
 

38. 

Glycolysis and oxidative respiration are different in that
a.
glycolysis occurs on the cell membrane, while oxidative respiration occurs in mitochondria.
b.
glycolysis occurs only in photosynthesis, while oxidative respiration is part of cellular respiration.
c.
glycolysis occurs in the absence of oxygen, while oxidative respiration requires oxygen.
d.
Both of these terms are different names for the same process.
 

39. 

Which of the following is not formed during the Krebs cycle?
a.
CO2
c.
NADH
b.
FADH2
d.
NADPH
 

40. 

Which of the following is not part of cellular respiration?
a.
electron transport
c.
Krebs cycle
b.
glycolysis
d.
Calvin cycle
 

41. 

With oxygen present, the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain
a.
provide organisms an alternative to glycolysis.
b.
produce most of the ATP needed for life.
c.
break down glucose to produce carbon dioxide, water, and ATP.
d.
All of the above
 

42. 

Water is an end product in
a.
lactic acid formation.
c.
the Krebs cycle.
b.
fermentation.
d.
the electron transport system.
 

43. 

Krebs Cycle : CO2 ::
a.
glycolysis : glucose
c.
cellular respiration : O2
b.
acetyl-CoA formation : O2
d.
electron transport chain : ATP
 

44. 

ATP molecules produced during aerobic cellular respiration
a.
remain in the mitochondria in which they are formed.
b.
are stored in chloroplasts of the same cell in which they are formed.
c.
enter the cell’s cytoplasm through the membranes of the mitochondria in which they are formed.
d.
are distributed by the bloodstream to all cells in the body.
 

45. 

After proton pumps in mitochondria have depleted electrons of their energy during ATP production,
a.
the electrons carried as part of hydrogen atoms are used in the formation of water.
b.
the electrons carried as part of hydrogen atoms are used in the formation of ethyl alcohol.
c.
the electrons build up inside the mitochondria and diffuse back to a thylakoid.
d.
None of the above
 
 
C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + ADP + P ¬ 6CO2 + 6 H2O + MOLECULE A
 

46. 

The process shown in the equation above begins in the cytoplasm of a cell and ends in the
a.
cytoplasm.
c.
endoplasmic reticulum.
b.
mitochondria.
d.
lysosome.
 

47. 

The equation above summarizes the process known as
a.
photosynthesis.
c.
oxidative respiration.
b.
fermentation.
d.
protein breakdown.
 

48. 

The molecule referred to as Molecule “A” in the equation above is
a.
NADPH.
c.
NADH.
b.
ATP.
d.
ADP.
 

49. 

When living cells break down molecules, energy is
a.
stored as ADP.
c.
released as heat.
b.
stored as ATP.
d.
Both b and c
 

50. 

Which of the following is the best explanation for the presence of both chloroplasts and mitochondria in plant cells?
a.
In the light, plants are photosynthetic autotrophs. In the dark, they are heterotrophs.
b.
If plants cannot produce enough ATP in the process of photosynthesis to meet their energy needs, they can produce it in aerobic respiration.
c.
Sugars are produced in chloroplasts. These sugars can be stored in the plant for later use, converted to other chemicals, or broken down in aerobic respiration to yield ATP for the plant to use to meet its energy needs.
d.
The leaves and sometimes the stems of plants contain chloroplasts which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts. The roots of plants contain mitochondria which produce ATP to meet the energy needs of these plant parts.
 

51. 

In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes more compact by
a.
breaking apart into separate genes.
b.
extending to form very long, thin molecules.
c.
wrapping tightly around associated proteins.
d.
being enzymatically changed into a protein.
 

52. 

Chromatids are
a.
dense patches within the nucleus.
b.
bacterial chromosomes.
c.
joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d.
prokaryotic nuclei.
 

53. 

A protein disk that attaches two chromatids to each other in a chromosome is called a(n)
a.
chloroplast.
c.
gamete.
b.
centromere.
d.
centriole.
 

54. 

Which of the following is not a true difference between the chromosomes of eukaryotes and those of prokaryotes?
a.
Eukaryotic chromosomes are linear, while those of prokaryotes are circular.
b.
Eukaryotic chromosomes are associated with histones, while those of prokaryotes are not.
c.
Eukaryotes usually have more than one chromosome, while prokaryotes have only one chromosome.
d.
Eukaryotic chromosomes contain DNA, while prokaryotic chromosomes contain a different form of genetic material.
 

55. 

A diploid cell is one that
a.
has two homologues of each chromosome.
b.
is designated by the symbol 2n.
c.
has chromosomes found in pairs.
d.
All of the above
 

56. 

Binary fission
a.
occurs when two cells collide with each other.
b.
produces excess energy.
c.
creates new species.
d.
is the process by which bacteria reproduce.
 

57. 

The chromosome of a bacterium
a.
is wrapped around proteins.
b.
has a circular shape.
c.
occurs in multiple pairs within the cell.
d.
is found within the nucleus.
 

58. 

In a bacterium, cell division takes place when
a.
its nucleus divides.
b.
the cell splits into two cells, one of which receives all of the DNA.
c.
the DNA is copied, a new cell wall forms between the DNA copies, and the cell splits into two cells.
d.
None of the above
 

59. 

The stage of the cell cycle that occupies most of the cell’s life is
a.
G1.
c.
G2.
b.
M.
d.
S.
 

60. 

growth : G1 ::
a.
mitosis : meiosis
c.
cytokinesis : M
b.
mitochondria replication : S
d.
DNA copying : S
 

61. 

metaphase : prophase ::
a.
photon : light particle
c.
thylakoid : grana
b.
G2 : S
d.
carbon fixation process : Calvin cycle
 

62. 

The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called
a.
telophase.
c.
anaphase.
b.
metaphase.
d.
prophase.
 

63. 

A spindle fiber is a specialized form of
a.
microtubule.
c.
cilium.
b.
flagellum.
d.
chromosome.
 
 
hgfesg_files/i0670000.jpg
 

64. 

Refer to the illustration above. Mitosis begins with the stage shown in diagram
a.
“1.”
c.
“3.”
b.
“2.”
d.
“4.”
 

65. 

Refer to the illustration above. The cell shown in diagram “5” is in
a.
metaphase.
c.
anaphase.
b.
telophase.
d.
prophase.
 

66. 

A typical human cell contains 46 chromosomes. After mitosis and cell division, each of the two new cells formed from the original cell
a.
gets 23 chromosomes.
b.
grows new chromosomes from existing DNA.
c.
gets a complete set of 46 chromosomes.
d.
None of the above
 

67. 

As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the original cell during cytokinesis
a.
receives a few chromosomes from the original cell.
b.
receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the original cell.
c.
donates a chromosome to the original cell.
d.
receives exactly half the chromosomes from the original cell.
 
 
hgfesg_files/i0720000.jpg
 

68. 

Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following correctly indicates the order in which these events occur?
a.
“A,” “B,” “C,” “D”
c.
“B,” “A,” “C,” “D”
b.
“C,” “B,” “A,” “D”
d.
“A,” “C,” “B,” “D”
 

69. 

5 : cell cycle ::
a.
6 : prophase
c.
3 : meiosis
b.
9 : cytokinesis
d.
4 : mitosis
 

70. 

Mitosis is a process by which
a.
DNA is replicated.
c.
cells grow in size.
b.
cytokinesis occurs.
d.
a cell’s nucleus divides.
 

71. 

Which of the following statements is true?
a.
Prokaryotes divide by mitosis.
b.
Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes.
c.
Animal cells form new cell walls when they divide.
d.
Cytokinesis differs in plant cells and animal cells.
 
 
Diagrams A and B show cells from an organism with a diploid chromosome number of 4.
hgfesg_files/i0770000.jpg
 

72. 

Refer to the illustration above. Which of the cells will be a diploid cell at the completion of division?
a.
“A”
c.
Both
b.
“B”
d.
Neither
 

73. 

Refer to the illustration above. Which of these cells is in the process of dividing to form gametes?
a.
“A”
c.
Both
b.
“B”
d.
Neither
 

74. 

When crossing-over takes place, chromosomes
a.
mutate in the first division.
b.
produce new genes.
c.
decrease in number.
d.
exchange corresponding segments of DNA.
 

75. 

The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes
a.
ensures that variation within a species never occurs.
b.
acts as a source of variation within a species.
c.
always produces genetic disorders.
d.
is called crossing.
 

76. 

The “father” of genetics was
a.
T. A. Knight.
c.
Gregor Mendel.
b.
Hans Krebs.
d.
None of the above
 

77. 

What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype?
a.
0.25
c.
0.66
b.
0.5
d.
1.0
 

78. 

True-breeding pea plants always
a.
are pollinated by hand.
b.
produce offspring with either form of a trait.
c.
produce offspring with only one form of a trait.
d.
are heterozygous.
 

79. 

The first filial (F1) generation is the result of
a.
cross-pollination among parents and the next generation.
b.
crosses between individuals of the parental generation.
c.
crosses between the offspring of a parental cross.
d.
self-fertilization between parental stock.
 

80. 

F2 : F1 ::
a.
P : F1
c.
F1 : P
b.
F1 : F2
d.
dominant trait : recessive trait
 

81. 

Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of one trait had no effect on the inheritance of another became known as the
a.
law of dominance.
c.
law of separate convenience.
b.
law of universal inheritance.
d.
law of independent assortment.
 

82. 

To describe how traits can disappear and reappear in a certain pattern from generation to generation, Mendel proposed
a.
the law of independent assortment.
b.
the law of segregation.
c.
the law of genotypes.
d.
that the F2 generation will only produce purple flowers.
 

83. 

The phenotype of an organism
a.
represents its genetic composition.
b.
reflects all the traits that are actually expressed.
c.
occurs only in dominant pure organisms.
d.
cannot be seen.
 

84. 

If an individual has two recessive alleles for the same trait, the individual is said to be
a.
homozygous for the trait.
c.
heterozygous for the trait.
b.
haploid for the trait.
d.
mutated.
 

85. 

Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
a.
T
c.
Tt
b.
TT
d.
tt
 
 
In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

hgfesg_files/i0920000.jpg
 

86. 

Refer to the illustration above. The genotype in box “3” of the Punnett square is
a.
FF.
c.
ff.
b.
Ff.
d.
None of the above
 

87. 

A trait that occurs in 450 individuals out of a total of 1,800 individuals occurs with a probability of
a.
0.04.
c.
0.50.
b.
0.25.
d.
0.75.
 

88. 

How many different phenotypes can be produced by a pair of codominant alleles?
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
4
 
 
hgfesg_files/i0960000.jpg
 

89. 

Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype represented by the cell labeled “1” is
a.
green, inflated.
c.
yellow, inflated.
b.
green, constricted.
d.
yellow, constricted.
 

90. 

Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented by the cell labeled “2” is
a.
GgIi.
c.
GI.
b.
GGIi.
d.
Gi.
 

91. 

2,000 yellow seeds : 8,000 total seeds ::
a.
1 : 6
c.
1 : 3
b.
1 : 8
d.
1 : 4
 
 
In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Consider the following cross between two rabbits.

hgfesg_files/i1000000.jpg
 

92. 

Refer to the illustration above. The device shown, which is used to determine the probable outcome of genetic crosses, is called a
a.
Mendelian box.
c.
Genetic graph.
b.
Punnett square.
d.
Phenotypic paradox.
 

93. 

Refer to the illustration above. Both of the parents in the cross are
a.
black.
c.
homozygous dominant.
b.
brown.
d.
homozygous recessive.
 

94. 

Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype of the offspring indicated by box “3” would be
a.
brown.
c.
a mixture of brown and black.
b.
black.
d.
The phenotype cannot be determined.
 
 
hgfesg_files/i1040000.jpg
 

95. 

Refer to the illustration above. The phenotype represented by the cell labeled “1” is
a.
round, yellow.
c.
wrinkled, yellow.
b.
round, green.
d.
wrinkled, green.
 

96. 

Refer to the illustration above. The genotype represented by the cell labeled “2” is
a.
RRYY.
c.
RrYy.
b.
RrYY.
d.
rrYy.
 

97. 

In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds. What would be the expected genotype ratio in a cross between a plant with green seeds and a plant that is heterozygous for seed color?
a.
1:3
c.
4:1
b.
1:2:1
d.
1:1
 

98. 

The difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross is that
a.
monohybrid crosses involve traits for which only one allele exists, while dihybrid traits involve two alleles.
b.
monohybrid crosses involve self-pollination, while dihybrid crosses involve cross-pollination.
c.
monohybrid crosses involve one gene; dihybrid crosses involve two genes.
d.
dihybrid crosses require two Punnett squares; monohybrid crosses need only one.
 

99. 

What fraction of the offspring resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous dihybrid cross are heterozygous for both traits?
a.
9/16
c.
3/16
b.
1/4
d.
1/16
 

100. 

A cross of two individuals for a single contrasting trait is called
a.
monohybrid.
c.
dominant.
b.
dihybrid.
d.
codominant.
 



 
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