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| Does state, federal or local government primarily regulate EMS? | State |
| Which federal agency is responsible for recommending national standards? | The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. |
| What are the two main benefits of a universal access number to EMS? | It provides trained staff to answer calls, and minimizes delays. |
| What are the four levels of emergency medical technician training? | First Responder, EMT-Basic, EMT-Intermediate, EMT-Paramedic. |
| What is your primary responsibility as an EMT-Basic? | Personal safety and the safety of others. |
| What is the function of the initial assessment? | To identify and treat life-threatening problems. |
| Why do you perform a focused history and physical exam? | To identify and treat non life-threatening problems. |
| What is the most important way you can prevent injury when lifting a patient? | Use proper body mechanics. |
| What is your first responsibility when arriving on a scene? | Scene safety |
| You arrive on the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Utility wires are down around the vehicle. What do you do first? | Call for trained personnel to clear the scene of hazards before proceeding. |
| Who is responsible for determining to which facility your patient is transported? | The on-scene EMT, following off- or on-line medical control procedures. |
| Under what circumstances might you bypass the nearest medical facility? | Trauma, burns, child, facility on bypass, specialized care. |
| In what two ways should you give your patient report upon arrival at the receiving facility? | It is your responsibility to provide both an oral and a written report |
| As applied to EMS, what does “quality improvement” mean? | It is a system of internal/external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system so as to identify those aspects needing improvement to assure that the public receives the highest quality of prehospital care |
| Through what means does the EMT-B maintain up-to-date knowledge and skills? | Continuing education and refresher courses. |
| What are the six aspects of EMS quality improvement? | Documentation, run reviews and audits, gathering feedback from patients and hospital staff, continuing education, continuing preventative maintenance, and skill maintenance. |
| As an EMT-Basic, you serve as the designated agent of whom? | The physician medical director of your EMS system. |
| Who is responsible for reviewing EMT-B quality improvement activities? | The medical director. |
| What level(s) of EMS provider services must have a medical director? | EMT-Basic, Intermediate, Paramedic. |
| What constitutes on-line medical control? | Physician medical direction by phone or radio. |
| What constitutes off-line medical control? | Protocols and standing orders. |
| What emotions may be expressed by dying patients and their families? | Rage, anger, and despair. |
| What does the dying patient need emotionally from the EMT? | Dignity, respect, sharing, communication, privacy and control. |
| What lifestyle changes can the EMT institute to reduce stress? | Diet, exercise, relaxation techniques. |
| What is a Critical Incident Stress Debriefing team? | A team of peer counselors and mental health professionals who help emergency careworkers deal with critical incident stress. |
| What is the purpose of Critical Incident Stress Debriefing? | To accelerate the normal recovery process after experiencing a critical incident. |
| What does comprehensive critical incident stress management include? | Pre-incident stress education, on-scene peer support, one-on-one support, disaster support services, defusings, CISD, follow up services, spouse/family support, community outreach programs, and other health and welfare programs such as wellness programs |
| What types of protective masks are available to the EMT? | Surgical type for possible blood splatter, and High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) respirator if patient is suspected of or diagnosed with tuberculosis. |
| What is the most effective method of preventing the spread of infection from individual to individual? | Hand washing |
| When is the EMT required to wear eye protection? | Any time there is a hazard of being exposed to blood or other body fluids. |
| When are vinyl or latex gloves needed? | When there is a possibility of contact with blood or other body fluids. They should be changed between contact with different patients. |
| What can help you identity possible hazardous materials spills on the highways? | Binoculars, placards, and Hazardous Materials, The Emergency Response Handbook, published by the USDOT. |
| Who controls the hazardous materials scene? | The specialized Haz-Mat team. |
| Fire department personnel bring you a patient from the Hot Zone. What is your first priority? | To determine whether the patient has been properly decontaminated. |
| What potential life threats are present at an accident scene? | Electricity, fire, explosion, hazardous materials. |
| What articles of protective clothing should the EMT wear at a crash scene? | Turnout gear, puncture-proof gloves, helmet and eye wear. |
| At a potential crime scene, the EMT must be wary that violence can be committed not only by the perpetrator, but by the following persons as well: | Family members, bystanders. |
| Prior to entering a potentially violent scene, what should the EMT do? | Wait for the scene to be secured by law enforcement personnel. |
| What immunizations should the EMT have? | Tetanus prophylaxis, Hepatitis B vaccine. |
| What tests should the EMT have done on a regular basis? | Tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) testing, and verification of immune status with respect to commonly transmitted contagious diseases. |
| What are the five stages that dying patients, and those close to them, often experience? | Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. |
| What are the top sources of stress for the EMT-B? | Long hours, boredom between calls, working too much and too hard, having to respond instantly, responsible for patients’ life, making life and death decisions, fearing errors,dealing with the dying and the grieving, and receiving little recognition. |
| Name some high stress situations for the EMT-B. | Multiple casualty incidents; trauma to children; child, elderly or spouse abuse; amputations; death or injury to a coworker or other public safety worker. |
| What is “burnout”. | A state of exhaustion and irritability that can markedly decrease effectiveness. |
| What are the warning signs of stress? | Irritability, inability to concentrate, anxiety, difficulty sleeping, nightmares, indecisiveness, guilt, loss of appetite, loss of sexual desire, loss of interest in work,feeling of isolation. |
| What two things can you do to reduce stress in the work environment? | Request work shifts allowing for more time to relax with family and friends; request a rotation of duty assignment to a less busy area. |
| In what ways can you change your diet to help reduce stress? | Reduce sugar, caffeine, and alcohol intake; avoid fatty foods, and increase carbohydrates. |
| Within what time frame should a Critical Stress Debriefing be held? | Within 24 to 72 hours of a major incident. |
| What is discussed in a CISD meeting? | It is an open discussion of feelings, fears and reactions. |
| Who should evaluate the information gained and offer suggestions on overcoming stress in the CISD meeting? | CISD leaders and mental health personnel. |
| What is the CISD meeting designed to accomplish? | Accelerate the normal recovery process after experiencing a critical incident. |
| What aspects of the CISD meeting serve to accelerate the normal recovery process? | The ventilation of feelings and the non-threatening environment. |
| T/F: Goggles are required for body substance isolation. | False, Goggles are NOT required. |
| When do you need to wear utility gloves? | When cleaning vehicles or equipment. |
| When do you need to wear a protective gown? | In large splash situations such as a field delivery or major trauma. |
| Is wearing a gown the best way to guard against body substance contamination? | No, a change of uniform is preferred. |
| When should a patient wear a mask, and what type? | A patient should wear a surgical mask when there is the possibility of airborne disease. |
| Which organizations govern the regulation of body substance isolation,notification and testing in an exposure incident? | OSHA and state agencies. |
| What protective clothing is used in hazardous materials incidents? | Hazardous materials suits and self-contained breathing apparatus. |
| What can you do to preserve a crime scene? | Do not disturb the scene unless required for medical care, and help maintain the chain of evidence. |
| Is the EMT-B’s scope of practice defined by federal, state, or local legislation? | State. |
| In what ways is the EMT-B’s scope of practice enhanced by the medical director? | Through the use of protocols and standing orders. |
| To whom does the EMT have legal duties? | o the patient, medical director, and public. |
| What is the primary reference used by states in developing scope of practice legislation for the EMT? | The National Standard Curriculum. |
| Upon what three factors is the EMT-B’s legal right to function contingent? | Telephone and radio communication, approved standing orders and protocols, and responsibility to medical direction. |
| What are five basic ethical responsibilities of the EMT? | Make the physical and emotional needs of the patient a priority; Practice and maintain skills to the point of mastery; Attend continuing education and refresher programs;Critically review performance, seeking ways to improve response time; Honesty in reporting. |
| Give an example of an advanced directive. | Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) orders. |
| T/F: The patient does not have the right to refuse resuscitative orders. | False |
| T/F: DNR orders require a written order from a physician. | True, in most jurisdictions. |
| You arrive at the home of a 68-year-old man who presents with a weak, thready pulse and respirations of eight. The wife states she has DNR orders, but she can’t find them. What do you do? | Begin resuscitative efforts. |
| In order to obtain expressed consent from a patient, that patient must | Be of legal age, be able to make rational decisions, and must be informed of the steps of the procedures and all related risks. |
| When must you obtain expressed consent from a patient? | Before rendering treatment to every conscious, mentally competent adult. |
| What is implied consent? | Implied consent is consent assumed from the unconscious patient requiring emergency intervention. |
| Upon what assumption is implied consent based? | On the assumption that the unconscious patient would consent to lifesaving interventions were he or she conscious. |
| When does the principle of implied consent apply to children? | When life-threatening situations exist and the parent or legal guardian is not available for consent. |
| When does the principle of implied consent apply to mentally incompetent adults? | When life-threatening situations exist and the legal guardian is not available for consent. |
| What local issues may effect consent for treating children and mentally incompetent adults? | Emancipation issues, and state regulations regarding the age of minors. |
| What is the legal term for unlawfully touching a patient without his or her consent? | Battery. |
| What is the legal term for providing emergency care when the patient does not consent to the treatment? | Assault. |
| T/F: A patient has the right to refuse treatment, even when that treatment may prove lifesaving. | True. |
